Section 11 — Board Previous Year Questions (CBSE Class 12 Biology · Chapter 3)
Reproductive Health is a high-yield Board chapter — on average about 4–6 marks per paper, spread across MCQs, short answers, and a frequent 5-mark question on contraceptives or ART.
Here are 24 high-yield Board questions in the usual CBSE weighting:
| Marks | Questions |
|---|---|
| 1 mark | Q1–Q7 |
| 2 marks | Q8–Q13 |
| 3 marks | Q14–Q19 |
| 5 marks | Q20–Q24 |
Cover the answer, attempt it yourself, then check. Most of these recur across years with minor rewording, so focus on the pattern rather than the exact year.
What CBSE Keeps Asking
Five themes carry most of the chapter's marks:
- Contraceptive methods (3 or 5 marks) — usually a list or table: natural, barrier, IUDs (CuT, LNG-20), oral pills (Mala-D, Saheli), injectables, implants, emergency, surgical (vasectomy, tubectomy).
- MTP — when and why (2 or 3 marks) — legalised 1971; 1971 Act legalised MTP; NCERT names the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2017. (Beyond NCERT: 2021 Amendment — one doctor up to 20 weeks, two doctors for 20–24 weeks, special categories.) Grounds include risk to the mother, foetal abnormality, contraceptive failure, rape.
- STIs — curable vs incurable (2–3 marks) — five curable (gonorrhoea, syphilis, chlamydiasis, trichomoniasis, genital warts), three incurable (genital herpes, hepatitis-B, HIV/AIDS).
- ART techniques (3 or 5 marks) — IVF-ET, ZIFT, GIFT, ICSI, IUI, AI: definition + indication.
- Population stabilisation & RCH (2–3 marks) — RCH programme, marriage age 18/21, 'Hum Do Hamare Do', contraceptive promotion.
1-Mark Questions (Q1–Q7)
Q1. [1 mark] Expand RCH.
Answer: Reproductive and Child Health (care) programmes.
Q2. [1 mark] Under the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2017, how many registered medical practitioners' opinion is needed to terminate a pregnancy of more than 20 but fewer than 24 weeks (special categories; MTP (Amendment) Act, 2021)?
Answer: Two. (Up to 12 weeks, one doctor's opinion is enough.)
Q3. [1 mark] Name the first non-steroidal oral contraceptive developed in India.
Answer: Saheli — a once-a-week pill developed by CDRI, Lucknow.
Q4. [1 mark · Assertion–Reason] (A) Copper-releasing IUDs reduce the chance of pregnancy. (R) Copper ions are spermicidal and reduce sperm motility. Options: (a) Both true, R explains A. (b) Both true, R doesn't explain A. (c) A true, R false. (d) A false, R true.
Answer: (a) — the spermicidal action of Cu²⁺ is exactly why copper IUDs work.
Q5. [1 mark] Expand ZIFT and GIFT.
Answer: ZIFT = Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer; GIFT = Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer. (ZIFT moves a zygote; GIFT moves gametes.)
Q6. [1 mark] Name any two incurable STIs.
Answer: Any two of genital herpes, hepatitis-B, HIV/AIDS.
Q7. [1 mark] Within how many hours of unprotected coitus is emergency contraception effective?
Answer: Within 72 hours — the sooner the better.
2-Mark Questions (Q8–Q13)
Q8. [2 marks] Differentiate between GIFT and ZIFT.
Answer: GIFT transfers gametes (sperm + egg) into the fallopian tube, so fertilisation happens inside the body. ZIFT transfers an already-fertilised zygote/early embryo (made in the lab) into the fallopian tube. The key difference is what is transferred.
Q9. [2 marks] Mention any four side-effects of combination oral pills.
Answer: Any four of: nausea, breast tenderness, headache, weight gain or fluid retention, mood changes, and breakthrough (spotting) bleeding between periods.
Q10. [2 marks] Why is vasectomy often preferred over tubectomy?
Answer: Vasectomy is a simpler, minor procedure under local anaesthesia, with fewer complications and faster recovery, whereas tubectomy is more major abdominal surgery. Both are highly effective but poorly reversible.
Q11. [2 marks] What is the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and why was it enacted?
Answer: The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994 bans techniques like amniocentesis and ultrasound from being used for foetal sex determination. It was enacted to prevent female foeticide and correct the skewed sex ratio; both the doctor and the parents are punishable.
Q12. [2 marks] Differentiate between IUI and IVF.
Answer: In IUI, concentrated sperm is placed into the uterus and fertilisation happens naturally in the fallopian tube. In IVF, the egg and sperm are fertilised outside the body in the lab and the embryo is then transferred to the female tract. The key difference is where fertilisation occurs — inside the body vs in the lab.
Q13. [2 marks] Name any two government measures to stabilise the population.
Answer: Any two of: raising the legal marriage age (18 for women, 21 for men); incentives for couples with small families; and wide promotion of contraceptives through the RCH programme.
3-Mark Questions (Q14–Q19)
Q14. [3 marks] Define infertility and give the major causes in males and females.
Answer: Infertility is the inability of a couple to have children even after two years of unprotected cohabitation. The causes may be physical, congenital, or due to disease, drugs, immunological or psychological factors. In males: low or absent sperm count, poor sperm motility, or blockage of the vas deferens. In females: failure to ovulate (e.g., PCOD), blocked fallopian tubes, or uterine and hormonal problems.
Q15. [3 marks] Briefly describe the three generations of IUDs with one example each.
Answer:
- Non-medicated — e.g., Lippes loop; acts as a foreign body that increases phagocytosis of sperms.
- Copper-releasing — e.g., CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375; the Cu²⁺ ions suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity.
- Hormone-releasing — e.g., Progestasert, LNG-20; make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Q16. [3 marks] Define STIs. Name four STIs and state whether each is curable or incurable.
Answer: STIs are infections passed mainly through sexual contact. Examples: gonorrhoea (curable), syphilis (curable), genital herpes (incurable), HIV/AIDS (incurable). Most STIs are curable if treated early; only genital herpes, hepatitis-B and HIV/AIDS are not.
Q17. [3 marks] A woman has severe lower-abdominal pain and the doctor suspects a tubal ectopic pregnancy. Explain (i) why it is dangerous, (ii) the treatment, and (iii) one common cause.
Answer: (i) The narrow fallopian tube cannot accommodate a growing embryo, so it can rupture and cause heavy internal bleeding — life-threatening. (ii) If caught early, a drug (medication, under specialist care) ends the pregnancy; if the tube has ruptured, emergency surgery removes the affected tube. (iii) A common cause is tubal scarring from an earlier pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
Q18. [3 marks] Why is HIV/AIDS more common in some groups, and what preventive measures help?
Answer: Higher-risk groups include people with multiple partners, injecting-drug users who share needles, and recipients of unscreened blood. Prevention: screen all donated blood, use disposable needles and syringes, use condoms, and spread awareness so people seek early testing and treatment.
Q19. [3 marks] [Cross-chapter link with Ch. 2 Human Reproduction] Outline the role of the corpus luteum in early pregnancy and why the placenta later replaces it.
Answer: After ovulation the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which maintains the endometrium and supports early pregnancy. During pregnancy, hCG from the embryo keeps it active for about the first 10–12 weeks. By around the third month the placenta secretes enough progesterone itself, so the corpus luteum is no longer needed and regresses.
5-Mark Questions (Q20–Q24)
Q20. [5 marks] Discuss the methods of contraception used in India — group them, give one example each, and note which are reversible vs permanent.
Answer: Contraceptives fall into six groups (all reversible except the last):
- Natural/traditional — periodic abstinence, withdrawal, lactational amenorrhea; no side-effects but unreliable.
- Barrier — condoms, diaphragms, cervical caps; condoms also protect against STIs.
- IUDs — Lippes loop, CuT, LNG-20; long-acting, inserted by trained staff.
- Oral/injectable hormones — pills (Mala-D, Saheli), injectables, implants; suppress ovulation and alter the cervix and endometrium.
- Emergency contraception — pills or a Cu-IUD within 72 hours of unprotected coitus.
- Surgical (permanent) — vasectomy in men, tubectomy in women; very effective but hard to reverse.
Q21. [5 marks] Explain the various Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) with their indications.
Answer:
- IVF-ET — egg and sperm fertilised in the lab; the early embryo goes to the fallopian tube (≤8 blastomeres, ZIFT) or the uterus (>8 blastomeres, IUT). For blocked tubes or unexplained infertility.
- ZIFT — a lab-formed zygote is placed in the fallopian tube.
- GIFT — gametes (a donor's ovum plus sperm) are placed in the fallopian tube of a woman who cannot produce her own eggs.
- ICSI — a single sperm is injected directly into the ovum; for severe male-factor infertility.
- IUI — concentrated sperm is placed into the uterus; for mild male-factor or cervical problems.
- AI — semen from the husband or a donor is introduced into the female tract when the male cannot inseminate normally.
Q22. [5 marks] Discuss Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) — definition, legal status, conditions, why it is needed, and the dangers of misuse.
Answer: MTP (induced abortion) is the intentional termination of a pregnancy before full term. The government legalised it in 1971 to curb unsafe, illegal abortions and female foeticide. Under the 2017 Amendment Act, it needs one doctor's opinion up to 20 weeks and two doctors' opinion between 20 and 24 weeks (2021 Amendment; beyond NCERT), on grounds such as risk to the mother's life or health or a serious foetal abnormality. MTPs are needed for unwanted pregnancies (contraceptive failure, rape) or when the pregnancy endangers the mother or foetus, and are relatively safe in the first trimester. The main dangers are illegal abortions by untrained quacks and the misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination — both unsafe and unlawful.
Q23. [5 marks] Discuss STIs — group them as curable and incurable with causative agents, and outline prevention.
Answer: STIs spread mainly through sexual contact (and sometimes through blood or from mother to child).
- Curable: gonorrhoea (Neisseria gonorrhoeae), syphilis (Treponema pallidum), chlamydiasis (Chlamydia trachomatis), trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis) — treated with antibiotics if caught early.
- Incurable (only manageable): genital herpes (HSV-2), hepatitis-B (HBV), HIV/AIDS (HIV). Prevention: avoid sex with unknown or multiple partners; always use condoms; and seek early diagnosis and full treatment if an infection is suspected.
Q24. [5 marks] Explain the causes and consequences of India's high population growth, and the government's reproductive-health response.
Answer: Causes: a falling death rate (especially infant mortality) without a matching fall in birth rate, more people of reproducible age, early marriage, low female literacy, and limited access to contraception. Consequences: strain on food, water, jobs, housing and healthcare, and slower per-capita progress. Response: the RCH programme (antenatal and postnatal care, immunisation, contraceptive supply), wide promotion of contraceptives and sterilisation, raising the marriage age to 18/21, the 'Hum Do Hamare Do' campaign, the PCPNDT Act against female foeticide, and female-education drives — the most powerful long-term way to lower fertility.
End of Section 11
That's 24 high-yield Board questions across the full mark range. If you can write the five 5-markers (Q20–Q24) from memory, you've secured most of this chapter's contribution to your paper.
Tip: wherever a question allows it, answer in a table or bullets — contraceptive types, STIs, ART techniques. Visible structure earns marks.